Should the E.U. be able to regulate sales of a product that
can legally be sold only in one state? Would such regulations encroach too much
on the governmental sovereignty of the state? In the U.S., Congress has
steadily extended its power to regulate interstate commerce to the point that
commercial transactions taking place entirely within one state are routinely
covered. Is the E.U. headed toward the same outcome?
The full essay is at "Essays on the E.U. Political Economy," available at Amazon.
